And the response...
https://www.foxnews.com/politics/matt-gaetz-election-bribery-probe-bloomberg-florida
Gaetz seems to know that his call for an investigation is wishy-washy ("I
believe..." "there
may be an investigation.." "
potentially launching an investigation..")
He says "... it’s a third-degree felony for someone to either directly or indirectly provide something of value to impact
whether or not someone votes."
The law seems to refer to having an impact on
whom one votes for, not whether or not they vote, at least as I read it:
No person shall directly or indirectly give or promise anything of value to another intending thereby
to buy that person’s or another’s vote or to corruptly influence that person or another in casting his or her vote.
No one knows how the former felons will vote, as they are now unable to even register with a political party. But clearly the senator Gaetz and the current R governor worry that they will not be getting votes from this group.
Just to further emphasize the injustice here: Four years ago, there were about 3 million Americans unable to vote due to a prior felony conviction, and who had completed their sentence to prison, parole or probation. About 1.5 million - half the total - were in a single state: Florida.
Not because there are more criminals here, but because those once convicted of a felony were prevented from voting, forever. A 19-year old who stole a car, spent a year in prison, then lived a law-abiding life for the next 60 years would never be able to vote. So the 1.5 million included people who had finished their prison sentences decades ago.
The citizens of Florida voted to change this, but Matt Gaetz, Governor DeSantis, and others have blocked the will of the people.