What doesn't make sense is people basing what makes sense on their boich svaros and anecdotal evidence. Of course, these are the same people who assumed "exposed" to mean infected, until it didn't.
At least one of the cases I know of claims to be a reinfection (though there was not confirmed COVID-19 test the first time around, but that person's husband was in the hospital for COVID-19 back then, so it's reasonable to assume that whatever mild symptoms she had back then were indeed COVID-19).
It's more reasonable to assume that it's not a reinfection.
Exposure to a person with the virus doesn't necessarily mean exposure to the virus.
Quotes in a signature is annoying, as it comes across as an independent post.
BINGOAnd even if you are exposed you’re not guaranteed to become infected.
Source? (Assuming the person is susceptible to the virus ie no low level immunity)
There are countless cases where it happened.
Facts on the ground where one spouse was ill and the other spouse never got sick and doesn’t have antibodies
My wife had covid and I didn't catch it.
Many such cases. The question is if the infected spouse was actually shedding the virus at the time the other spouse was exposed to them. It's very possible that they weren't exposed to the virus, rather just exposed to the person carrying the virus.
1. How can that be measured outside of a controlled setting with intentional exposure?2. One possible way to get an idea is from people who were exposed simultaneously where one was infected and one not. Considering that there were weddings and shuls where people were known to have caught it but not everyone did. That is pretty clear as well.
You’re thinking in black and white terms. It’s possible that some shedding outside of that window happens. Even within that window viral loads vary from one patient to another.It’s certainly possible that someone exposed to one single copy of a virus and not get infected. Are you asking what the threshold is for definitive infection? There are too many variables (barriers/PPE/is it airborne, immun system variables, closeness and duration of exposure, airflow, etc etc etc etc etc) for anyone to put a number on it.
It is certainly possible that this is so. It was stated as fact, though, and I was asking for a source that it actually works that way.
I think that the only fact that we might be able to agree on is that no-one really knows anything about this, there are best guesses, assumptions, etc., but this virus continuously produces new surprises. It has been my contention since the early days that it might have been sent so that people should finally acknowledge the shortcomings of human knowledge and understanding.
Also very difficult, because in shul not everyone is has the same level of exposure to the carrier.