There is zero evidence that has to do with anything. The whole majority immune theory was simply a fiction.
So why is the prevalence of reinfection going up (anecdotally)? And people are saying (anecdotally as well) that its because of the new variants?
Realize that I wrote "unknown" likelihood. Meaning that it can exist but may not exist at all, but I definitely recall hearing about reinfection that was attributed to a new variant. Perhaps I misunderstood.
I didn't deny that majority or herd immunity was a fiction.