Greater transmissibility doesn’t necessarily mean the mitigation is deadlier.
Can you please explain this? I'm not sure I understand?
Also, just cause transmissibility increase makes for more deaths than morbidity increase, that doesn’t mean a deadlier variant will be better. If it spreads faster and is deadlier more people will die due to both factors.
Is it possible that these variants don't have higher transmission rates per se, but because the virus overall is just so prevalent by now that it just seems that way?
Meaning to say that for example 6 months ago, let's say 10k ppl had variant A, but now a million ppl have variant B, obviously a lot more ppl are going to catch variant B, right? And 100 ppl died of variant A, while 10,000 ppl died of B, so obviously 10,000 is way more than 100, but both are 1% of the total cases so can we still say B deadlier?
I just made up these numbers to ask my question, I didn't take them from anywhere. I just want to understand how increased transmissibility of a particular variant and also increased death can be very clearly proven.