From what I remember, there are mishnayos that describe how to do it in a kosher way. CMIIW. My point was that it is not a question in the poskim whether a gett can be coerced in certain situations. Nobody argues on the Mishna.
I think we're completely missing each other here. I'm not talking about how the coercion is done, I have no idea whether there are additional halachos regulating that aspect.
There are cases where the mishna or gemara says the husband must divorce his wife and specifies that beis din forces him to if he doesn't want to. In those situations, obviously everyone agrees that forcing the husband produces a kosher get, and as you said it's not a matter of debate because it's clear in the mishna/gemara.
Any other case where the mishna/gemara doesn't specify that beis din forces the husband is far from a 'unanimous' sugya, as you can imagine, and there are subcategories that are treated differently by some poskim. Based on the complaint, this case does seem to fall somewhere in the vastness of the latter category. I think I saw once that some poskim learn that the Rambam's shittah is that if she wants a get and he doesn't want to give it, we can always force him. But that part is far from unanimous. I guess in retrospect my answer to alpicone is only correct with regard to the first category, and in context he may not have been asking about that catogory.