Total Members Voted: 158
There is no official data but most doctors are assuming that once symptoms resolve you’re not contagious anymore. I don’t know how they’re treating these cases of reinfection, perhaps they assume the virus is finding dead cells and they’re really symptomatic with something else? I keep hearing more and more of these stories.Most recently, an uncle and aunt both tested positive when they were showing symptoms Purim time. They recovered and were healthy for weeks. Last week, my aunt fell ill again (worse this time, she can’t get out of bed) and my uncle went to test (as a requirement before an unrelated surgery) and tested positive again.. this is 6 weeks after the first test
So these people are not contagious even though they are symptomatic and positive?
It's possible they're not contagious in the interim period, but nobody really knows.
My understanding is that anybody with a positive PCR swab test can be shedding the virus. Anybody with a negative PCR test isn't contagious, except for the fact that there is no reliable negative test so there is no way to determine it.
2 negative tests is considered reliable.
My understanding is that anybody with a positive PCR swab test can potentially be shedding the virus. Anybody with a negative PCR test isn't contagious, except for the fact that there is no reliable negative test so there is no way to determine it.
FTFY. We just don’t know.
Plot twist.
Next plot twist. My wife got tested now:I'm flabbergasted.
Plot twist.My wife got tested now:I'm flabbergasted.
Quotes in a signature is annoying, as it comes across as an independent post.
Did she show symptoms? I have seen many couples with one test positive for antibodies and the other not, but usually the one who does not have antibodies did not show (strong) symptoms at all.Multiple people on the forums have reported this.
Try again in a week?
She did not have symptoms.
I’ve not heard of too many people showing antibodies without symptoms. If anyone has a different experience please post. This is another confirmation of that trend.@skyguy918 witnessed this in reverse, and I proposed a few possible theories to explain it
I'm curious about this part:For example, I tested negative for antibodies, while my wife, who had a positive diagnostic test previously, tested positive for antibodies. We took no distancing precautions from each other (simply not practical given our circumstances) of any kind during the time that she presumably had the virus. Ain lecha exposure gadol mizeh. Why would I not have contracted it? And if I truly didn't contract it, what would be different down the line to cause me to contract it from an outside source. I'm sure I'm not the only one in this boat, whether people realize it or not.
Some possible answers I’ve seen (don’t know enough about the science to confirm validity): A) You caught it once she was contagious, so you tested yourself too early because you’re really 2 weeks behind herB) She had a low viral load, not enough to really infect others so you didn’t catch it from herC) Not everybody gets it from everyone, as long as she didn’t sneeze or cough close to your mouth/nose it’s possible for you not to have gotten it but still get it from any random person who sneezesD) You have some type of natural immunity so your body didn’t need to produce antibodies and you didn’t show symptomsE) You got it, but in a really small dose, so it didn’t show on a test and you didn’t produce antibodies
Cannot verify but was told that Rav Aharon Shechter has antibodies with no known exposure or symptoms.