Ok.
So back to my question. The Old Testament discusses feticide and proscribed a financial penalty. This being in sharp contrast to the death penalty for homicide. Do they explain why that is? My assumption is because in the feticide case it’s unintentional, just want to confirm that’s how they understand it.
Where did "feticide" come from?
Let me make this clear. The Catholic Church considers abortion murder, FULL STOP!!! No exceptions and no pretzels!!!
How one religion interprets their scriptures is up to them.
A classic example would be the Messiah.